Any bean which has scope type is said to have a bean defining annotation.
The spec makes this vague statement and provides two examples which only cover the two simplest cases. What remains unclear is:
- if a bean class inherits a scope annotation definition from a superclass, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
- if a bean inherits a scope from a stereotype, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
- if a producer method / field has a scope annotation but the declaring bean is not a bean with bean defining annotation, whould the producer be discovered?